QuestionFirstly I have to thank you for the quick response. I greatly appreciate this. My complications are whether it is possible to ovulate using your pills wrongly on the days specified. Her exact cycle was proven by seeing the sonar analysis. But say in the week for her inactive pills she instead have used the active pills and skip a day or two at the event of the 21st of May, will it possible for her to concieve then? The other question is basically points to if it is possible to determine/detect pregnancy 5 days after she has conceived (Blood or Home Pregnancy Test)?
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Followup To
Question -
I am a guy need to know if I am really the father. All my research show that I may not but still it puzzles me.
The lady's last period was the last week of April 2005, she was suppose to be on the oral contraceptive pill. Our sexual event happened on the 21st of May one day before her new period should've started. Based on my research the last week pills are inactive reminder pills and should not cause any pregnancy if it was skipped. If she wasn't on the pill then based on her menstruation cycle whether it is 28 days or 35 days where I was involved on day 27 which place me well out of her ovulation period. I cannot get satisfactory information from her and have a believe that she was involved with somebody else on the 9th which based on the menstration calculation, its on day 15. Several lies came out of this believe that she stills believe I am the father and that she did a pregnancy test after her actions on the 9th which showed negative. Now I have several questions:
Can oral contraceptive cause her to ovulate on day 27 if not used appropriately? What is the risk of getting pregnant on day 27 whether or not you have a steady cycle (28 or 35 days) without the use of contraception? Note that she was proven pregnant 5 days after our sexual event, is this possible if her menstruation would've been on a 35 day cycle? Thanks.
Answer -
If she took the pills regularly and did not miss a pill, it is highly unlikely that she would have ovulated at all, since birth control pills have a 99.9% efficacy against pregnancy. If she was on the pill, her cycle would usually be 28 days in length (from the first day of her period until the first day of her next period) In a 28 day cycle, ovulation occurs on cycle day #14. She can only become pregnant if she had unprotected sex on cycle day #13, 14, 15, or 15. It is impossible for her to have conceived one day before her next period because it would have been too late in her cycle for ovulation to have occurred. If her last period started on the 25-30 of April, then she would have ovulated between May 7-14, and by the 21 of May it would have been too late to conceive.
AnswerThe earliest that a pregnancy test will show a positive result is 14-21 days after conception. If a blood test for pregnancy is done (Beta HCG) it is sometime possible for it to show a positive result 10 days after conception. No test is accurate prior to 10 days after conception. It is doubtful that she would have ovulated unless she failed to take ANY pills for more than 3 days in a row. Taking the active pills during the week that the inactive pills were supposed to be taken will have no effect whatsoever.
